Right of way question.

A right of way has to be established without permission, that permission was given and is now withdrawn, tough.
 
That’s what I say. It’s not a formal easement though or has become one through long-term use, had it? If so, that would mean my mate could never replicate his neighbours side extension because it would block his vehicular access.

A formal easement, would need it to be in writing, and the neighbour would likely have needed to pay something for the privilege. This would seem to be nothing more than an informal arrangement, a privilege which can be withdrawn at any time - the neighbour has upset your mate, so end of the informal arrangement. Your mate should just block his drive, with his own car, limiting all access through to the rear.
 
Prescription to obtain right of way is 20 years uninterrupted.
Your mate needs to build a fence on his side of the boundary or even put a couple of bollards.
No need to give any notice to his neighbour.
As he is/was a police officer plays in your mate's favour.
Surely he won't do anything wrong at risk of ending up on the front page of the local paper.
 
i 100% agree its your land with no permitted access
but can you not come to some compromise, as in his head he is right so better trying to remove the heat and find a compromise because iff world war 3 kicks off and somebody has to move the fact there is a dispute [which has to be declared ] will put many off and can cost thousands off the sale price and may cause extended months or years selling
 
A lot of layers make huge sums over boundary disputes. The key to this is what the deeds say as that will be the starting point.
 
Not sure I understand what you mean by that Harry. Can you elaborate please

It being on someone's deeds, is neither here, nor there, with regard to adverse possession law. You can make a claim for the land after just ten years, of your making exclusive use of the land, treating it as though it were yours, but upon starting your claim, the owner will be advised by the LR about your making the claim. It is then down to the landowner, to disposes you of the land. If the landowner then fails to take any action, the land is passed on under adverse possession law.

I made use of the 'adverse possession law', some years ago, but it does seem to have been revised slightly since then.
 
i 100% agree its your land with no permitted access
but can you not come to some compromise, as in his head he is right so better trying to remove the heat and find a compromise because iff world war 3 kicks off and somebody has to move the fact there is a dispute [which has to be declared ] will put many off and can cost thousands off the sale price and may cause extended months or years selling

The neighbour kicked this all off, in the first place. I would expect the neighbour to make an apology. I wouldn't call it a dispute, it's clearly the OP's drive, there can be no doubt about that.

My next door neighbour, lacks a through to the rear drive. A few years ago, we had new gas pipes installed, their meter was at the rear. The only route for them, would have been with an ugly surface pipe, around the outside of their house. At my suggestion, as we get on with them, was to run my pipe, and their pipe, up my drive.
 
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its more if it goes official via any route and recorded it has to be declared when selling
 
It being on someone's deeds, is neither here, nor there, with regard to adverse possession law. You can make a claim for the land after just ten years, of your making exclusive use of the land, treating it as though it were yours, but upon starting your claim, the owner will be advised by the LR about your making the claim. It is then down to the landowner, to disposes you of the land. If the landowner then fails to take any action, the land is passed on under adverse possession law.

I made use of the 'adverse possession law', some years ago, but it does seem to have been revised slightly since then.
Adverse possession has no sway in this situation as the possession is not adverse i.e. without the owners consent,
 
i 100% agree its your land with no permitted access
but can you not come to some compromise, as in his head he is right so better trying to remove the heat and find a compromise because iff world war 3 kicks off and somebody has to move the fact there is a dispute [which has to be declared ] will put many off and can cost thousands off the sale price and may cause extended months or years selling
I think Mr Putin is a follower of your appeasement policy
 
Adverse possession has no sway in this situation as the possession is not adverse i.e. without the owners consent,

I agree, the OP is making regular use of his land (drive), so adverse possession has nowt to do with it. I was simply explaining the law to

jj4091, in view of his erroneous comment.

 
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